IBM Mainframe Forum

Can some one explain the purpose of have an OPC resource on the job within the application and a JCL step within the job that makes the same resource unavailable.

Jobname : PLREP130 JOB51268

Row Special resource name Qty Shr Keep On Reason
cmd Ex Error Wait
' PANX * X

//STEP001 EXEC PGM=EQQEVPGM
//EQQMLIB DD DSN=SYS1.SEQQMSG0,DISP=SHR
//EQQMLOG DD SYSOUT=*
//SYSIN DD *
SRSTAT 'PANX' SUBSYS(OPCT) AVAIL(NO)

Thanks

Hello,

If i understand the question, It is a way to provide an enqueue (without using a datasaet name). When one process "has" the resource, some other process may not "get" the resource. When the first process ends and releases the resource, another process may "get" it.

Hi Dick,
Your understanding is correct...

but what is odd is the need to explicitly make the resource unavailable...
if the TWS definition are correct there is no need to explicitly reserve the resource...
when TWS submits/schedules a job the resource is automatically enqueued/reserved

unless , that could be the reason for the explicit enqueue/reserve, the job is submitted outside of a TWS plan/schedule

I appreciate the feed back on my question.

Thanks

Hi Enrico,

but what is odd is the need to explicitly make the resource unavailable...

Possibly there are several processes that are neither predecessors not successors - they just need to run single-thread?

I appreciate the feed back on my question.

You're welcome