IBM Mainframe Forum

by **raghav08** » Wed Oct 27, 2010 5:23 pm

Hi,

If my JCl has the following statements

//BKC5U06C EXEC PROC=IMDLIBCH
//IEFRDER DD DSNAME=PRD22.BKC5.IMSLT.BKC5UC06(+1),
// DISP=(NEW,CATLG,CATLG),
// UNIT=CTPE,LABEL=EXPDT=99000

And my PROC

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//IMDLIBCH PROC
//STEP01 EXEC PGM=DFSRRC00
:
//IEFRDER DD DSN=PRD02.BSKC.OUT,DISP=(,KEEP)
:

How the above PROC override will work without STEPNAME.DDNAME concept?

Thanks.

by **NicC** » Wed Oct 27, 2010 6:41 pm

As per the JCL manual - the override will be applied to the first step, or if there is another override for a particular step preceding your override then it will be applied to that step e.g.

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//STEP2.SOMENAME DD ....
//YOURNAME DD ....

The YOURAME override will be applied to STEP2.

Of course, you could have found this out by yourself in less time than it take to post the question just by trying it out. Use TYPRUN=SCAN to prevent the job actually executing - all the JCL substitution is done before the job executes.

by **raghav08** » Thu Oct 28, 2010 12:41 pm

Thanks for your reply.

The same procedure called again with following override (no DSN name)- Whats the use of this override statement(no DSN)?

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//BKC5U06C EXEC PROC=IMDLIBCH
//STEP01.IEFRDER DD SPACE=(8192,(90000,99999)),UNIT=CTPE,
// LABEL=EXPDT=99000,DISP=(NEW,CATLG,DELETE)

Thanks.

by **NicC** » Thu Oct 28, 2010 12:44 pm

Do you know what override means? Suggest you do as I suggested: 1) read the JCL Users Guide, 2) run the job using TYPRUN=SCAN

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