IBM Mainframe Forum

[Virus009]

Hi,

Do we have option in CA-7 like TWS to create application which contains series of jobs.

Requirement -a) Create an application AAA which contains 10 jobs for claims processing.( AAA contains A1,A2..A10 series of jobs run one after other)
b) Trigger application on event base ( like file received )
c) Application AAA should not run , if previous application is running

Thx

[Robert Sample]

CA-7 allows you to trigger a job depending on various circumstances (including creation of a data set). So you will have CA-7 trigger your first job based upon the creation of the data set. The second job will be triggered by the (successful?) completion of the first job, the third job will be triggered by the (successful?) completion of the third job, and so forth. Read the CA-7 manual on data set triggers and job dependency.

[Virus009]

Thank you , My question more related to bundle as application rather than scheduling .

Event 1 trigger -then AAA will start A1->A2->A3->A4.....
While above series is in process , if we receive one more event ..then next series will kick off ..i dont want that

In TWS scheduler u can define all jobs ( A1-A10 ) as application and you can control at application level..

[Robert Sample]

CA-7 and TWS are different products from different vendors, and as such each will have features the other does not. Unless it has been added in a recent release, as far as I know CA-7 does not support applications the way TWS does.

Have you contacted the vendor to ask your question? If not, why not? If your site has a license for CA-7, you are entitled to support and CA could answer your question MUCH better than anyone on a forum.

[Blackthorn]

It's a long, long time since I've used CA7, but if I understand correctly you just want to ensure that one "application", i.e.; sequence of jobs, does not start until the previous one has finished.

So, the first job in your suite should be dependent on the last job in the previous suite. This can easily be accomplished in CA7 regardless of the cause of the initial trigger. From memory, I seem to recall that specifying a LEADTIME of 0 means that the predecessor job must have run since the last run of the successor job, i.e.; they will always run in the sequence first job > last job > first job > last job, etc., regardless of the time frames involved.

[Virus009]

Thank you